Plutarch's Romane Questions · Plutarch
44.
_Why is it not lawfull for_ Jupiters _priest to sweare_? IS it because an oth ministered unto free borne men, is as it were the racke and torture tendred unto them? for certeine it is, that the soule as well as the bodie of the priest, ought to continue free, and not be forced by any torture whatsoever. Or, for that it is not meet to distrust or discredit him in small matters, who is beleeved in great and divine things? Or rather because every oth ended with the detestation and malediction of perjurie: and considering that all maledictions be odious and abominable; therefore it is not thought good that any other priests whatsoever, should curse or pronounce any malediction: and in this respect was the priestresse of _Minerva_ in _Athens_ highly commended, for that she would never curse _Alcibiades_, notwithstanding the people commanded her so to doe: For I am (quoth she) ordeined a priestresse to pray for men, and not to curse them. Or last of all, was it because the perill of perjurie would reach in common to the whole common wealth, if a wicked, godlesse and forsworne person, should have the charge and superintendance of the praiers, vowes, and sacrifices made in the behalfe of the citie.
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